A 65-year-old obese male with diabetes and a history of IV drug abuse presents with a painful swollen left leg. Exam reveals dark purple discoloration and several large bullae over the calf. Vitals are temperature of 101.1 ° F, heart rate of 120/ min, and blood pressure of 92/ 68 mmHg. The CRP is 200 mg/ L (normal < 10 mg/ L), and the WBC is 28.3/ mm3 (normal 4- 10/ mm3). Creatinine is 2.0 mg/ dL (normal 0.5- 1.5 mg/ dL), and Na is 127 mEq/ L (normal 135- 145 mEq/ L). Distal pedal pulses are 1 +. IV fluids and intravenous antibiotics are administered. Which of the following is the next best step?
(A) X-ray of the leg
(B) CT scan of the leg with IV contrast
(C) Venous Duplex scan of the left leg
(D) Measure compartment pressures
(E) Emergent wide surgical debridement